Hi
Appreciating that I am new to holiding individual shares and I hear the phrase "top skimming" used regularly in reference to the current advances in share prices, but wanted to understand what it actually is and how people use it.
I would give the example of I have bought 1000 shares in company XYZ at £1.00 per share so an initial holding of £1000. They are now valued at £1.80 a share so making my holding value £1800.
I still think that XYZ are a good company to invest in long term so I do not want to sell my whole stake, though I do think that it might be an appropriate time to take some of the profit and reinvest that elsewhere.
Would top skimming typically be to sell GBP 800 so reducing my holding back to £1000? Or is it something different? Or have I got totally the wrong idea?
Finally typically at what sort of value of gain, and do you use £ or %, do you typically look to start doing this process?
Thanks
Tom
Top skimming isn't really the correct term to use. You are referring to top-slicing where you sell part of your holding in a company to take some profits off the table but you still retain some of your holding because you still believe the company and its share price will continue to do well. Top-slicing is probably most often carried out when the profit made is equal to the original investment made in the company (selling half of your holding when the share-price has doubled) but if you consider it is a good time to take some profits go ahead and do it rather than wait for the share-price to double.
Ian